70-494 Dumps PDF, 70-347 Latest Dumps

Recertification for MCSD: Web Applications

• Published: August 1, 2014
• Languages: English
• Audiences: Developers
• Technology: ASP.NET MVC
• Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSD

NO.1 You deploy Office 365. All the members of a team named Sales have full access to a shared
mailbox named Sales. You enable auditing for all shared mailboxes. From the Sales mailbox, an email
message that contains inappropriate content is sent. You need to identify which user sent the
message. What should you do?
A. From the Exchange Control Panel, run an administrator role group report.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-SharingPolicy cmdlet.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Write-AdminAuditLog cmdlet.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the New-MailboxAuditLogSearch cmdlet.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company uses Office 365 ProPlus
and has multiple Microsoft SharePointOnline sites.
The company recently started a project that requires employees to collaborate with external users on
the development of a set of documents that are stored in a team site.
You need to ensure that external users can access and edit the documents without affecting the
security of other content.
What should you do?
A. Create a new SharePoint team site and share it by using the Share function and adding the external
users to the Visitors group.
B. Create a new SharePoint team site and share it by using the Share function and adding the external
users to the Contributors group.
C. Share the existing SharePoint team site by using the Share function and adding the external users
to the Visitors group.
D. Share the existing SharePoint team site by using the Share function and adding the external users
to the Contributors group.
Answer: B

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NO.3 HOTSPOT
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company's Microsoft Exchange Online environment.
The company recently subscribed to the Office 365 Enterprise El plan.
The company wants to filter email messages based on the following criteria:
Reverse DNS lookup Sender open proxy test HELO/EHLO analysis Analysis of spam confidence level
(SCL) ratings on email messages from a specific sender
You need to filter all email messages.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the
appropriate command segment from each list in the answer area.
----
Answer:

NO.4 A company is upgrading from Office 2010 to Office 365 ProPlus. The company plans to use the
Telemetry Dashboard to identify document compatibility issues.
You need to enable telemetry and immediately trigger data collection.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Modify the AgentInitWait and AgentRandomDelay registry values on the client computers.
B. Configure a Group Policy Object to turn on telemetry data collection in the User Configuration
settings.
C. Configure a Group Policy Object to turn on telemetry data collection in the Computer
Configuration settings.
D. Delete the contents of the telemetry shared folder.
E. Run the gpupdate. exe /force command on the file server that hosts the telemetry shared folder.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Your company has a hybrid deployment of Office 365. You discover that some Active Directory
user accounts are unavailable in Office 365. You need to identify why the user accounts are
unavailable in Office 365. What should you do?
A. Verify the miissetup.log file.
B. Run the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer.
C. Run the Test-OutlookWebServices cmdlet.
D. Run miisclient.exe.
Answer: D

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NO.6 HOTSPOT
You are the Exchange Online administrator for a company that has offices in Seattle, New York,
London, and Paris. The StateOrProvince attribute in Active Directory is populated with each user's
location.
Employees must be able to send email messages to all users in Europe.
You need to create the distribution group.
How should you complete the Windows PowerShell command? To answer, select the appropriate
segment from each list in the answer area.
Answer Area
Answer:

NO.7 You subscribe to Office 365. You plan to implement single sign-on.
You need to deploy Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to a server for the planned
implementation.
Which deployment methods should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.)
A. On a server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2, download and install AD FS 2.0.
B. On a server that runs Windows Server 2008, download and install AD FS 2.0.
C. On a server that runs Windows Server 2008, install the AD FS server role.
D. On a server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2, install the AD FS server role.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 You have an on-premises Exchange 2010 organization. All clients use Outlook 2007 SP1.
You enable online archive mailboxes in Exchange Online for several users.
The users are unable to access the online archive mailboxes in Microsoft Outlook.
You need to ensure that users can access the online archive mailboxes in Outlook.
What should you do?
A. Apply Outlook 2007 SP2 and all related updates.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the users to the Global Administrators group.
C. Instruct the users to access the online archive mailboxes by using Outlook Web App.
D. Delete and recreate the users' Outlook profiles.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-494
Exam Name: Recertification for MCSD: Web Applications
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Exam Code: 70-347
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INTRODUCTION:
The CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] certification is a vendor neutral credential. In order to receive CompTIA Linux+ certification, a candidate must pass two exams. The second exam is CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] exam number LX0-104. This exam measures the remaining competencies (beyond those in exam number LX0-103) required by a junior level Linux administrator, as described in the exam objectives below.
The successful junior level Linux administrator should be able to:
o Work at the Linux command line;
o Perform easy maintenance tasks including assisting users, adding users to a larger system, executing backup & restore, shutdown & reboot;
Install and configure a workstation (including X) and connect it to a LAN, or a stand-alone PC via modem to the Internet.
This examination blueprint includes domain weighting, test objectives, and sample content.
Candidates are encouraged to use this document to guide their studies. The contents of the examination blueprint help prioritize topics and provide a guide of what to expect on this CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] exam. The table below lists the domains measured by this examination and the extent to which they are represented.
Exam Code: LX0-104
Exam Name: CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] - Exam 2
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NO.1 Why is the correct configuration of a system's time zone important?
A. Because the conversion of Unix timestamps to local time relies on the time zone configuration.
B. Because the time zone is saved as part of the modification times of files and cannot be changed
after a file is created.
C. Because the environment variables LANG and LC_MESSAGES are, by default, set according to the
time zone.
D. Because NTP chooses servers nearby based on the configured time zone.
Answer: A

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NO.2 CORRECT TEXT
Please specify the top directory containing the configuration files for the CUPS printing system.
(Specify the full path to the directory.)
Answer: /etc/cups, /etc/cups/

NO.3 What is NOT contained in the locale setting of the operating system?
A. currency symbol
B. language
C. timezone
D. thousands separator
Answer: C

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NO.4 CORRECT TEXT
Which command is used to add an empty group to the system? (Specify ONLY the command without
any path or parameters.)
Answer: groupadd, /usr/sbin/groupadd

NO.5 CORRECT TEXT
In an xinetd configuration file, which attribute specifies the network address that will be used to
provide the service?
Answer: bind, interface

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NO.6 CORRECT TEXT
On a Linux system with shadow passwords enabled, which file in the file system contains the
password hashes of all local users? (Specify the full name of the file, including path.)
Answer: /etc/shadow

NO.7 CORRECT TEXT
What is the name of the simple graphical login manager that comes with a vanilla X11 installation?
(Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)
Answer: xdm

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NO.8 Which of the following commands preloads and manages keys that are used for automatic
authentication while logging in to other machines using SSH?
A. sshd
B. ssh-agent
C. ssh-keygen
D. ssh-add
Answer: B

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1z0-432 Exam Dumps, 1z0-133 Exam Tests

Oracle WebLogic Server 12c: Administration I
Exam Number: 1Z0-133 / 1Z0-133
Duration: 120 minutes
Associated Certifications: Oracle Certified Associate, Oracle WebLogic Server 12c Administrator
Number of Questions: 77
Exam Product Version: WebLogic Server,
Passing Score: 64%
Exam Price: US$ 150
Validated Against:
NO.1 An online store web application is deployed to a WebLogic server cluster. User of the
application frequently complain that the information in their shopping cart vanishes before they are
able to complete an order. You use the Administration Console to monitor the web application.
Which metric is the most relevant to this problem?
A. Average execution time
B. Session timeout
C. Current session count
D. High session count
E. Cookie domain
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are creating and configuring a cluster by using the administration console. Which two
statements are true?
A. All servers that will be part of the cluster must be created before the cluster is created.
B. You must pick the cluster messaging mode.
C. Even though you create a non dynamic cluster, you can change it to a dynamic cluster .
D. Once the cluster is created, you cannot change its messaging mode.
E. The administration console does not provide a way to manually migrate singleton services. It must
be set up to be done automatically or by using WLST.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about multicast communication within a cluster?
A. Multicast can be used for cluster heartbeat messages.
B. Multicast is used to replicate session state between servers.
C. Multiple cluster can share the same multicast address and port.
D. You may disable multicast on individual cluster members.
E. Multicast traffic is often limited to a single subnet.
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 You create a new Work Manager to control how server threads are allocated to an application's
increasing requests . You want to further configure the criteria of the Work manager by using a
Request class.
Identify three valid Request classes that you can to a work manager.
A. Uniform Distribution Request class
B. Response Time request class
C. Max Throughput Request class
D. Fair share Request class
E. Context Request class
Answer: B,D,E

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Reference: http://www.itbuzzpress.com/weblogic-tutorials/weblogic-pools-
configuration/creatingrequest-class-for-your-workmanagers.html

NO.5 You use the administration console to start a managed server. Select the three statements that
must be true.
A. In the domain configuration, the managed server is assigned to a machine.
B. The Node Manager process is running on the administration server's machine.
C. The Node Manager process is running on the managed server's machine.
D. The administration server uses one way SSL to communicate with the Node Manager.
E. In the domain configuration, the Node Manager has been configured for the machine.
F. You have configured the Java based Node Manager. The administration console cannot
communicate with the script - based Node Manager.
Answer: A,C,E

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Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E23943_01/apirefs.1111/e13952/taskhelp/startstop/StartManagedServer
sFromTheAdministrationConsole.html

NO.6 You are deploying a web application called inventory, war. It has been installed and has the
state of "prepared". It is targeted to the Managed server named managed1.The web application'
context root is /inventory and the starting page is index .jap.
However ,you want to test the application before allowing end users access to it. In the
administration console, you select inventory. war, and then select Start and "servicing only
administration request."
In you web browser, you need to enter a host and port followed by /inventory /index.jap.
Which host and port would you use?
A. managed1 host and port
B. Administration Serve host and port
C. managed1 host and Administration port
D. Administration server host and Administration port
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which action should you take to automatically back up the domain configuration when anyone
Activates a configuration change?
A. USE the backup='true' parameter of the ad activate () command In WLST.
B. The administration console , select " Follow Configuration changes" In the Shared preferences for
the console.
C. In the administration console, select "Configuration Archive Enabled" under the general
configuration of the domain.
D. Enabling automatic domain configuration creates backups of the configuration during server boot
not at each activation.
Answer: C

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E13209_01/wlcp/wlng40/restore/domain_backup.html
(enabling automatic configuration backups)

NO.8 View the following file excerpt, which configures HTTP session replication:
< session-descriptor >
< persistent-store-type > replicated </persistent-store-type >
</session-descriptor > From which file is this except taken?
A. Weblogic -application.xm1
B. Weblogic-xm1
C. Session-xm1
D. Config-xm1
E. 0 Web.xm1
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 1z0-432
Exam Name: Oracle Real Application Clusters 12c Essentials
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Exam Code: 1z0-133
Exam Name: Oracle WebLogic Server 12c: Administration I
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810-401 Test Answers, 640-911 Real Dumps

Description
This exam tests a candidate's knowledge and skills related to selling technology services and solutions with a business outcome focus. Questions cover essential capabilities to grow pipeline and revenue through work across sales stages from "Prospect" through "Close".
Exam Topics
The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed. The following topics are general guidelines for the content that is likely to be included on the practical exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the following guidelines may change at any time without notice.
13%   1.0   Business Outcomes Sales Approach
20%   2.0   Customer Business Environment
25%   3.0   Customer Business Context,Challenges, and Opportunities
25%   4.0   Outcome-Based Opportunity for Customer Impact
17%   5.0   Manage and Communicate with Stakeholders
Recommended Training
The following course is the recommended training for this exam.
Selling Business Outcomes (OUTCOMES)
Courses listed are offered by Cisco Learning Partners-the only authorized source for Cisco IT training delivered exclusively by Certified Cisco Instructors. Check the List of Learning Partners for a Cisco Learning Partner nearest you.
Additional Resources
A variety of Cisco Press titles may be available for this exam. These titles can be purchased through the Cisco Marketplace Bookstore, directly from Cisco Press.
NO.1 Which type of organizational goals do key performance indicators measure?
A. tactical
B. financial
C. strategic
D. technological
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which option is a recommended activity that is important for outcome selling?
A. Use a checklist to cover all renewal needs.
B. Have strategic value-based discussions with management.
C. Ask questions until you have filled out the required tool checklist.
D. Identify which services are associated with a Cisco product.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is a key differentiator of the Cisco Data Analytics market solution?
A. It manages a higher volume of data than the competition.
B. It sets new standards for data capture and storage.
C. It includes a new Cisco category of cloud applications.
D. It offers an end-to-end industry platform.
Answer: D

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NO.4 When making good use of best practices or scenarios during the selling process, what is the
most effective way to present these?
A. Use cases relevant to the customer
B. Business cases used previously
C. Customer briefing documents
D. Customer benefits statements
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which option is a structured way to understand business landscape and context?
A. business model canvas
B. business outcomes canvas
C. business model outcomes
D. business canvas approach
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 810-401
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Exam Code: 640-911
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
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070-331 Free download, 70-331 Test Questions

Prüfung 70-331

Veröffentlicht: 1. Februar 2013
Sprachen: Englisch, Chinesisch (vereinfacht), Französisch, Deutsch, Japanisch, Portugiesisch (Brasilien)
Zielgruppen: IT-Experten
Technologie: Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
Anrechnung für Zertifizierung: MCP, MCSE
Bewertete Fähigkeiten
Mit dieser Prüfung werden Ihre Fähigkeiten bei der Ausführung der unten aufgeführten technischen Aufgaben bewertet. Die Prozentangaben geben Aufschluss über die relative Gewichtung der einzelnen Schwerpunktthemen. Je höher der Prozentsatz, desto mehr Fragen zu diesem Bereich wird die Prüfung enthalten.
Bitte beachten Sie, dass die Prüfungsfragen sich auf die Themen in den nachfolgenden Aufzählungen beziehen, jedoch nicht darauf beschränkt sind.

Entwerfen einer SharePoint-Topologie (20–25 %)
Planen der Sicherheit (20–25 %)
Installieren und Konfigurieren von SharePoint-Farmen (20–25 %)
Erstellen und Konfigurieren von Webanwendungen und Websitesammlungen (15-20 %)
Verwalten einer SharePoint-Kernumgebung (20–25 %)

Wer sollte diese Prüfung ablegen?
Kandidaten für diese Prüfung haben in der Regel mehr als vier Jahre praktische Erfahrung bei der Planung und Verwaltung von SharePoint und anderen Kerntechnologien, von denen SharePoint abhängt, einschließlich Windows Server 2008 R2 oder höher, Internet Information Services (IIS), Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 oder höher, Active Directory und Netzwerkinfrastrukturdienste.
NO.1 A company has a SharePoint environment that consists of two web applications. The first web
application is used as the corporate intranet site, and the second web application hosts several
custom apps. The custom apps use Microsoft Business Connectivity Services (BCS) Web Parts to
retrieve data from external systems.
The home page of the second web application displays information from three custom apps and
renders slowly.
You need to identify the custom app that is causing the slow response times.
Which tool should you use?
A. SharePoint Web Analytics service application
B. SharePoint audit log reports
C. SharePoint Health Analyzer
D. Developer Dashboard
Answer: D

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NO.2 You need to implement corporate sizing and performance guidelines for general usage
scenarios.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
three.)
A. For the Remote BLOB Storage (RBS) storage subsystem on network attached storage (NAS), limit
the maximum time-to-first-byte (TTFB) of any response from the NAS to 100 milliseconds.
B. Limit the maximum size of each content database to 4 TB.
C. For the Remote BLOB Storage (RBS) storage subsystem on network attached storage (NAS), limit
the maximum time-to-first-byte (TTFB) of any response from the NAS to 20 milliseconds.
D. Limit the number of documents in each document library to 20 million.
E. Limit the number of documents in each content database to 10 million.
F. Limit the maximum size of each content database to 200 GB.
Answer: C,E,F

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Explanation:
C: Network Attached Storage (NAS) is only supported by SharePoint 2013 with iSCSI and if TTFB is less
than 20ms.
E: The largest number of items per content database that has been tested on SharePoint Server 2013
is 60 million items, including documents and list items. If you plan to store more than 60 million items
in SharePoint Server 2013, you must deploy multiple content databases.
F: We strongly recommended limiting the size of content databases to 200 GB, except when the
circumstances in the following rows in this table apply.
If you are using Remote BLOB Storage (RBS), the total volume of remote BLOB storage and metadata
in the content database must not exceed this limit.
Note: The use of RBS-enabled content databases larger than 4TB with collaboration sites is not
supported.
Reference: Plan for RBS in SharePoint 2013
Reference: Software boundaries and limits for SharePoint 2013

NO.3 DRAG DROP
A company plans to make Office Web Apps available for all users. The company deploys a multi-
server, load-balanced Office Web Apps server farm.
You install and configure SSL certificates.
The SharePoint farm operates in both internal and external zones.
You have the following requirements:
- Servers must connect to both zones.
- The Office Web apps farm must communicate securely with SharePoint Servers.
You need to configure the environment.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell commands? To answer, drag the
appropriate Windows PowerShell segments to the correct location. Each Windows PowerShell
segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
Answer:

NO.4 A company deploys Enterprise Search for SharePoint Server 2013.
Some crawls of result sources fail to complete.
You need to examine detailed information about crawl rate, crawl latency, crawl freshness, content
processing, CPU and memory load, continuous crawls, and the crawl queue to determine how you
should alter crawling.
What should you review?
A. Microsoft Search Server performance counters
B. The crawl log
C. Crawl-health reports
D. Unified Logging Service (ULS) logs
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Crawl-health reports provide detailed information about crawl rate, crawl latency, crawl freshness,
content processing, CPU and memory load, continuous crawls, and the crawl queue.
Reference: Best practices for crawling in SharePoint Server 2013
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn535606.aspx#BKMK_UseCrawlLog

NO.5 A web application is configured in a SharePoint environment.
A user receives an application error message that includes a correlation ID.
You need to find out the cause of the error.
Which two actions can you perform to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a
complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Locate the correlation ID in the Security event log.
B. Enable the Developer Dashboard and review the content.
C. Locate the correlation ID in the Unified Logging Service (ULS).
D. Locate the correlation ID in the System event log.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 You need to ensure that the web servers can communicate with service applications after you
replace the existing farm.
What should you do?
A. Configure Windows Firewall to allow traffic on port 1433.
B. Configure the network firewalls to allow traffic on port 32843.
C. Configure Windows Firewall to allow traffic on port 32843.
D. Configure the network firewalls to allow traffic on port 1433.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are managing a SharePoint farm in an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest and
SharePoint Online.
You resolve an authentication issue with the on-premises SharePoint farm. Users now experience
performance degradation.
You need to configure SharePoint 2013 Usage and Logging service to the default settings for user
authentication logging.
From the Monitoring page in Central Administration, which two options will achieve the goal? Each
correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Setting the value of the Least critical event to report to the event log setting to Monitorable
B. Setting the value of the Least critical event to report to the trace log setting to Monitorable
C. Setting the value of the Least critical event to report to the event log setting to Information
D. Setting the value of the Least critical event to report to the event log setting to Verbose
E. Setting the value of the Least critical event to report to the trace log setting to Verbose
F. Setting the value of the Least critical event to report to the trace log setting to Medium
Answer: B,C

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B: Trace log, level Monitorable. This level records messages about all unrecoverable events that limit
the functionality of the solution but do not stop the application. When set to this level, the log also
includes events that the Unexpected setting records.
C: Event log, Information: Information messages do not require any action. However, they can
provide valuable data for monitoring the state of your solution.
Reference: Configure diagnostic logging in SharePoint 2013
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee748656.aspx

NO.8 You need to prepare the web servers for a SharePoint installation in the new farm.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
three.)
A. Save the PrerequisiteInstaller.Arguments file in the same directory as the prerequisite installer.
B. Define the installation arguments in a file named PrerequisiteInstaller.Arguments.txt
C. Install Windows Server 2012 on SERVER02.
D. Define the installation arguments in a file named PrerequisiteInstaller.Arguments.cfg.
E. Save the PrerequisiteInstaller.Arguments file in the SharePoint installation directory.
F. Install Windows Server 2012 on a virtual machine.
Answer: A,B,F

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Explanation:
A, B: Using a text editor, create a new text document named PrerequisiteInstaller.Arguments.txt.
Save this file to the same location as PrerequisiteInstaller.exe.
F: From Scenario: All servers must be virtualized unless otherwise specified
Note: From scenario (but applies to the database server, not the web servers):
The database servers must be physical machines running Windows Server 2012 with direct access to
storage.
Reference: Install prerequisites for SharePoint 2013 from a network share

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NO.1 You have created SAP HANA information models from replicated SAP ECC data.
How can you compare the data of the replicated tables with the underlying ECC source data?
A. Use the SAP ERP Data Browser (transaction SE16).
B. Use the Catalog node to open table contents.
C. Use transaction IUUC_REPL_CONTENT.
D. Use the Data Provisioning view from the Quick Launch.
Answer: A,B

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exam Duration: 180 mins
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NO.2 Which of the following actions must you perform in an SAP HANA system to transport content
to another SAP HANA system?
A. Generate and save an export file to a shared directory.
B. Assign the content repository to a transport request.
C. Mass copy the content repository into the other SAP HANA system.
D. Assign the package to a delivery unit.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 You need to find out which users logged on to the SAP HANA system over the course of the last
week.
What would you check?
A. The Audit log
B. Entries in M_CONNECTIONS
C. The nameserver_history.trc file
D. The indexserver_alert.trc file
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which connection type is required from the SAP ERP system to SAP HANA to enable COPA side
by side scenario?
A. HTTP connection
B. JDBC
C. Secondary database connection
D. Remote Function Call
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following automatically aggregates data?
A. Analytic view
B. Calculation view
C. Column table
D. Attribute view
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 HANA Currency Conversion supported only via ___
A. Analytic
B. Attribute
C. Calculation
D. Analytic / Calculation
Answer: D

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NO.7 You have imported models from the development system. What is the recommended way
toactivate dependent models in SAP HANA?
A. Use the Activate with History function.
B. Use the Where-Used List function.
C. Use the Cascade Activate function.
D. Activate each view manually.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When you activate an analytic view, a column view is created. In which schema is this column
view stored?
A. _SYS_BIC
B. _SYS_BI
C. _SYS_REPO
D. _SYS
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which two statements are true when row-archival management is enabled?
A. Visibility of theORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is controlled by the row archival visibility session
parameter.
B. TheORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is updated manually or by a program that can reference activity
tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
C. The row archival visibility session parameter defaults to all rows.
D. TheORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is visible if it is referenced in the select list of a query.
E. TheORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is updated automatically by the database based on activity
tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 In which three scenarios is media recovery required?
A. when a tablespace is accidentally dropped from a database
B. when archived redo log files are lost
C. when data files are lost
D. when one of the online redo log members is corrupted
E. when all control files are lost
Answer: A,D,E

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Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/A87860_01/doc/server.817/a76993/recoscen.htm

NO.3 RMAN is connected to the target database prod1 and an auxiliary instance in nomount state.
Examine the command to create a duplicate database:
RMAN> DUPLICATE TARGET DATABASE TO dup1
FROM ACTIVE DATABASE
NOFILENAMECHECK
PASSWORD FILE
SPFILE;
Which two statements are true about the execution of the duplicate command?
A. All archive redo log files are automatically copied to the duplicate database.
B. The duplicate database has the same directory structure as the source database.
C. The duplicate database is created by using the backups created during the execution of
D. the duplicate command.
E. The password file and SPFILE for the duplicate database dup1 are created in their respective
default locations.
F. The duplicate database is created without using RMAN backups and prod: is allowed to remain
open during duplication.
Answer: A,F

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NO.4 You notice that the performance of your production 24/7 Oracle 12c database has significantly
degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want
to restart the database instance.
How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?
A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA for analysis.
C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest
Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring,
E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
* In most cases, ADDM output should be the first place that a DBA looks when notified of a
performance problem.
* Performance degradation of the database occurs when your database was performing optimally in
the past, such as 6 months ago, but has gradually degraded to a point where it becomes noticeable to
the users. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) Compare Periods report enables you to
compare database performance between two periods of time.
While an AWR report shows AWR data between two snapshots (or two points in time), the AWR
Compare Periods report shows the difference between two periods (or two AWR reports with a total
of four snapshots). Using the AWR Compare Periods report helps you to identify detailed
performance attributes and configuration settings that differ between two time periods.
Reference: Resolving Performance Degradation Over Time

NO.5 You issue the command:
SQL> ALTER DATABASE BACKUP CONTROLFILE TO TRACE;
Which statement is true about the command?
A. It creates a copy of the control file and stores it in the location specifiedin the diagnostic_dest
initialization parameter.
B. It creates a file that contains the SQL statement, which is required to re-create the control file.
C. It updates the alert log file with the location and contents of the control file.
D. It creates a binary backup of the control file.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which three statements are true regarding the use of the Database Migration Assistant for
Unicode (DMU)?
A. A DBA can check specific tables with the DMU
B. The database to be migrated must be opened read-only.
C. The release of the database to be converted can be any release since 9.2.0.8.
D. The DMUcan report columns that are too long in the converted characterset
E. The DMUcan report columns that are not represented in the converted characterset
Answer: A,D,E

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A: In certain situations, you may want to exclude selected columns or tables from scanning or
conversion steps of the migration process.
D: Exceed column limit
The cell data will not fit into a column after conversion.
E: Need conversion
The cell data needs to be converted, because its binary representation in the target
character set is different than the representation in the current character set, but neither
length limit issues nor invalid representation issues have been found.

NO.7 Users report this error message when inserting rows into the orders table:
ERROR atline1:
ORA-01654f:unable to extend index USERS.ORDERS_IND by 8in tablespace INDEXES
You determine that the indexes tablespace is out of space and there is no free space on the
filesystem used by the Oracle database.
Which two must you do to fix this problem without affecting currently executing queries?
A. drop and re-create the index
B. coalesce the orders ind index
C. coalesce the indexes tablespace
D. perform an on line table rebuild using dbns_redefir.ition.
E. rebuild the index online moving it to another tablespace that has enough free space for the index
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Automatic Undo Management is enabled for your database. You want a user to retrieve
metadata and historical data for a given transaction or for transactions in a given time interval.
Which three are prerequisites to fulfill this requirement?
A. Minimal supplemental logging must be enabled.
B. The database must be running in archivelog mode.
C. Flashback Data Archive must be created and the flashback archive administer system privilege
must be granted to the user.
D. The flashback any table privilege must be granted to the user.
E. The select any transaction privilege must be granted to the user.
F. Therecycle binparameter must be set to on.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.1 As a member of the project team, you are asked to set up the system so that user has to enter
an
order reason when processing a sales order. It should be possible to save the incomplete order,
but further processing should not be possible until the Order Reason field is filled.
How do you implement this requirement?
A. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field and mark it as mandatory.
B. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field and assign a status group in
which the fields General, Delivery, and Billing Document are selected.
C. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field, assign it to the sales
document type, and set the status to "released for further process steps".
D. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field and assign it to a sales
document type that has the "Incompletion Message" indicator set.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What Service Desk feature provides all the functions to analyze and monitor an entire SAP
solution centrally?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Implementation Roadmap
C. SAP Notes
D. SAP Solution Manager diagnostics
Answer: D

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NO.3 In which of the following master records can partial delivery agreements be stored? (Choose
two)
A. In the customer material info record
B. In the material master record
C. In the condition master record
D. In the customer master record
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements regarding quantity contracts is correct?
A. Quantity contract items will show up in the delivery due list when ready for delivery.
B. Different requested delivery dates are maintained in the schedule lines of the quantity contract.
C. Quantity contracts contain details about the customer's requested delivery dates.
D. Quantity contracts are delivered using a contract release order.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Using rental contracts, which settings are mandatory for working with periodic billing?
(Choose
two)
A. Maintenance of a factory calendar that is assigned to the customer master
B. Assignment of a billing plan type to the item category of the rental contract item
C. Maintenance of a separate billing type that is assigned to the sales document type of the rental
contract
D. Assignment of the respective billing relevance (order-relevant billing – billing plan) to the item
category of the rental contract item
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Based on which of the following dates is the availability check (ATP) carried out?
A. Requested delivery date
B. Replenishment lead date
C. Material availability date
D. Goods issue date
Answer: C

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NO.7 For what purposes can you use transaction variants? (Choose two)
A. To define values in a selection screen for a report
B. To add new external fields to the sales document
C. To hide fields in a sales order
D. To define default values for data fields
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Which SAP NetWeaver component realizes cross-system application processes?
A. SAP Exchange Infrastructure (SAP XI) / SAP Process Integration (SAP PI)
B. SAP Enterprise Portal (SAP EP)
C. SAP Master Data Management (SAP MDM)
D. SAP Business Warehouse (SAP BW)
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-488
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions
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Exam Code: 70-412
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NO.1 HOTSPOT
A web application that listens on port 80 has been created for Internet users to access your
company's SharePoint site.
The web application uses claims-based authentication.
Users report that they are prompted for credentials when they access the site in their browser.
You need to enable anonymous access.
On the Manage web applications page in Central Administration, which option should you select? (To
answer, select the appropriate menu item in the answer area.)
Answer:

NO.2 You receive an error when you deploy the app.
You need to resolve the error.
What should you do?
A. Create a deployment package and upload the app to the app catalog in SharePoint.
B. Enable side-loading of apps in the app manifest.
C. Deploy the app to https://contoso-my.sharepoint.com.
D. Enable side-loading of apps in the Visual Studio project properties.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
We should deploy the app to the Development site, that is https://contoso.sharepoint.com/tasks
(see Existing Site Configuration in scenario).

NO.3 A user deploys a sandbox solution. The user cannot activate the solution.
You need to ensure that the user can activate the solution.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Grant permission to the user to activate the solution.
B. Grant permission to the user to execute the solution.
C. Configure a local mode load-balancing scheme.
D. Stop the Microsoft User Code Host Service.
E. Configure a remote mode load-balancing scheme.
F. Start the Microsoft SharePoint Foundation Sandboxed Code Service.
Answer: A,F

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Explanation:
A: Need to activate the feature that provisions the files.
siteCollection.Features.Add([guid_of_your)feature])
F: To enable sandboxed solutions by using Central Administration - Verify that you have the following
administrative credentials: - On the home page of the Central Administration Web site, in the System
Settings
section, click Manage services on server. - On the Services on Server page, in the Server box, select
the server on which you want to enable sandboxed solutions. - In the Microsoft SharePoint
Foundation Sandboxed Code Service row, in the Action column, click Start.

NO.4 The Contoso SharePoint on-premise intranet portal stores content in 50 site collections.
Contoso must display all content tagged with a metadata term on the main page of the portal.
You need to display all documents with the metadata term without using any custom code.
Which technology should you use?
A. Content Query Web Part (CQWP)
B. Content Search Web Part (CSWP)
C. TaxonomySession
D. CamlQuery
Answer: B

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Explanation:
CSWP can be configured to "see" items anywhere in SharePoint.
Incorrect:
Not A: CQWP and related SPSiteDataQuery can only search within the current site
collection.
Not C: For TaxonomySession you would have to write code.
Not D: The CamlQuery class just specifies a query on a list.
Reference: Using the Content Search web part (and understanding SP2013 search)

NO.5 You plan to create a SharePoint Business Process Automation (BPA) project.
You need to process items in queues on a configurable schedule.
Which tool should you use?
A. Remote Event Receiver
B. Work Item Timer Job
C. Out-of-the-box workflow
D. SharePoint Designer workflow
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A Work Item Timer Job can be scheduled to run operations in SharePoint. A Work Item Timer Job is
essentially a queue where you add list items that need to be processed. When the Work Item Timer
Job runs, it pulls items from the queue and process the item. When complete, the item is removed
from the queue (if you want) so it is not processed again.
Reference: ALL ABOUT SHAREPOINT WORK ITEM TIMER JOBS Adventure Works uses a web design
firm to design the user interface for an upcoming toy sales website, www.toys.adventureworks.com.
The website is built by using a SharePoint publishing template.

NO.6 Adventure Works uses a SharePoint publishing site for an external website at
www.adventureworks.com. The user interface is implemented by using HTML5, CSS 3, and JavaScript.
You need to ensure that the site designers have an efficient way to create and modify the JavaScript
files.
What should you do?
A. Open the site in SharePoint Designer. From All Files, double-click the _cts folder and then select
the MasterPages folder. Create a folder. Modify the JavaScript files by using Microsoft Notepad.
B. Copy all the JavaScript files to a document library and modify them directly by using Microsoft
Notepad.
C. Open the site in SharePoint Designer. From Master Pages select the JavaScript files to modify
them.
D. Set up a mapped network drive in Design Manager. Open the mapped drive and create a folder.
Modify the JavaScript files by using Microsoft Notepad.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Master Page - Use SharePoint Designer to add code to a master page when you want to code to be
available on every page in a site. You can add the JavaScript inside of <SCRIPT> tags or link to a file
that contains the JavaScript. Typically add your CSS just before the </HEAD> section and your
JavaScript just before the </BODY> tag.
Reference: Adding JavaScript and CSS to SharePoint A company develops a SharePoint app that
employees use to submit expense reports. Employees can approve their own expenses for purchases
less than $100. For expenses greater than $100, the app will authenticate both itself and the user
before approval is requested.

NO.7 A company uses SharePoint for internal collaboration. SharePoint is deployed on a server farm
with a single front-end server, a single application server, and a dedicated database server.
You review existing Web Parts that read from and write to SharePoint lists. You find the following
code in one of the utility classes and notice memory leaks in the method.
You need to ensure that there are no memory leaks in the method.
What should you do?
A. Add a finally statement and include site.Dispose ().
B. Add site.Dispose() to the catch statement.
C. Add a finally statement and include siteCollection.Dispose ();
D. Add siteCollection.Dispose() to the catch statement.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: MB5-705
Exam Name: Managing Microsoft Dynamics Implementations
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Managing Microsoft Dynamics Implementations

• Published: September 21, 2013
• Languages: English, French, German, Italian, Japanese, Russian, Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil), Chinese (Simplified)
• Audiences: IT professionals
• Technology: Microsoft Dynamics Sure Step
• Credit toward certification: MCP, Microsoft Dynamics Certified Technology Specialist

Exam Code: MB6-704
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R3 CU8 Development Introduction
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NO.1 You need to provide users with the ability to open a Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services
(SSRS) report from a form.
What should you use?
A. A data source
B. A form part
C. An output menu item
D. A display method
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are developing a solution that will delete some records from a specific table.
You need to add a button that has delete logic on a Click event. Users must be prompted for input in
the form of Yes or No before executing the delete operation.
What are two possible communication tools you can use to achieve this goal? Each correct answer
presents a complete solution.
A. Warning Boxes
B. Print, pause
C. Dialog boxes
D. Warning Info log
E. Error Info log
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 You are developing queries to fetch data from the CustTable table. CustTable contains a
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You need to fetch data from CustTable in ascending order based on City.
What are three possible SQL statements that achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.
A. Select CustTable order by city ASC;
B. Select CustTable index city;
C. Select CustTable index city Idx;
D. Select city From CustTable;
E. Select CustTable order by city;
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.4 Which statement accurately describes a model in Dynamic AX?
A. A model can be used to group other models.
B. A model can group elements at multiple layers.
C. A model can group elements only at a specific layer.
D. An element that exists only in one layer can be in multiple models in the same layer.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You need to identify which permission can be set only on a form that has date effective data.
Which permission should you identify?
A. Correct
B. Create
C. Delete
D. Read
E. Update
Answer: A

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NO.6 A developer writes code by using X++.
You need to identify whether the code violates best practices.
Which tool should you use?
A. The X++ code editor
B. The Code profiler
C. The X++ compiler
D. The Debugger
Answer: C

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NO.7 You need to write X++ code that is common to both the CustTable table and the Vend Table
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What should you do?
A. Modify CustTable to add all of the fields in Vend Table. Write X* + code that uses CustTable.
B. Create a view that includes the fields in both CustTable and Vend Table. Write X+ + code that uses
the view.
C. Create a table that extends from CustTable and Vend Table. Write X+ + code that uses the new
table.
D. Create a map that links CustTable and Vend Table. Write X++ code that uses the map.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You need to set the code permission of an action menu item.
Which property should you use?
A. Linked Permission Object
B. Configuration Key
C. Needed Access Level
D. Web Secure Transaction
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2010-509
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V7.1 Fundamentals
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Exam Code: C2210-911
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Solution Development
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NO.1 What additional level of security can be used during the transfer of data from client and server?
A. encryption
B. compression
C. deduplication
D. data shredding
Answer: A

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Explanation:
You can encrypt the data as well.

NO.2 A storage pool contains backup data from several clients and has collocation by node enabled.
If collocation is disabled by setting collocation to No, what is the immediate effect on files already
stored in the storage pool?
A. There is no immediate effect on files that are already stored.
B. A reclamation process is immediately started to remove the collocated files.
C. All collocated backup data is deleted, and clients are required to perform a full backup.
D. A migration process is automatically started to move the collocated files to the copy pool.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which level of IBM Tivoli Storage Manager administrator authority includes the ability to
restore node data from a remote system to a local system?
A. storage
B. system
C. operator
D. client access
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The Backup Operators group allows users to back up and restore files regardless of whether they
have read or write access to the files. Since this group has a limited set of user rights, some functions
are not available to members of the Backup Operators group.

NO.4 What can be done so that a data center can maintain highly available restore and recovery
capabilities across data centers?
A. Use node replication.
B. Use active-data pools.
C. Put the storage pools on shared SAN volumes.
D. Use Disaster Recovery Manager to automate a server rebuild if needed.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The Disaster Recovery Manager (DRM)
The TSM(Tivoli StorageManager)Disaster Recovery Manager is a feature that is included
with TSM Extended Edition andit is the part of the TSM application that can be used to
assist with the management of off-sitedisaster recovery.
Reference:A Brief Introduction to IBM Tivoli StorageManager Disaster Recovery Manager

NO.5 What is compatible with client-side deduplication?
A. SSL
B. NDMP
C. encryption
D. LAN-free backup
Answer: B

• Number of questions: 63
• Time allowed in minutes: 90
• Required passing score: 66%
• Languages: English, Japanese

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Explanation:
When you configure client-side data deduplication, the following requirements must be met:
*The client and server must be at version 6.2.0 or later.
*(not D)Client-side deduplication cannot be used in combination with LAN-free backups.
*(not C)Files that are intended for deduplication must not be encrypted. Encrypted files
and files from encrypted file systems cannot be deduplicated.
Etc.

NO.6 What does the command query inclexcl show?
A. Details of which files are backed up.
B. The specific order in which files are backed up.
C. Which users have restore privileges for specific files.
D. The include/exclude statements in the order they will be processed.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two types of server tasks are shown in the Operations Center?
A. active
B. db reorgs
C. encrypted
D. completed
E. missed schedules
Answer: A,E

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Explanation:
A:TSM Servers The status indicator shows whether the Tivoli Storage Manager servers that are
managed by the Operations Center are available to provide data protection services to clients. E:TSM
Clients A client is considered to be at risk if a problem occurs during its most recent scheduled
backup, or during a backup that starts within a specified time interval. The term backup also includes
archive operations for TivoliStorage Manager for Enterprise Resource Planning clients. Use the
information that is shown in the TSM Clients section to check for failed or missed backups and to
determine whether backup schedules are running as expected.

NO.8 There is a requirement to provide hot backups for a physical machine running Microsoft
Exchange Server 2010. What is a prerequisite?
A. Update the VSSPOLICY in the dsm.opt file to specify a management class.
B. Install IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Mail on the same system as the Exchange server.
C. Update power shell cmdlets to include the IP address of the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server.
D. Stop the Exchange host controller service, start the incremental backup, and start the Exchange
server.
Answer: B

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