C2010-509 Study Guide, C2210-911 Exam Questions

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Exam Code: C2010-509
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V7.1 Fundamentals
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Exam Code: C2210-911
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Solution Development
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NO.1 What additional level of security can be used during the transfer of data from client and server?
A. encryption
B. compression
C. deduplication
D. data shredding
Answer: A

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Explanation:
You can encrypt the data as well.

NO.2 A storage pool contains backup data from several clients and has collocation by node enabled.
If collocation is disabled by setting collocation to No, what is the immediate effect on files already
stored in the storage pool?
A. There is no immediate effect on files that are already stored.
B. A reclamation process is immediately started to remove the collocated files.
C. All collocated backup data is deleted, and clients are required to perform a full backup.
D. A migration process is automatically started to move the collocated files to the copy pool.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which level of IBM Tivoli Storage Manager administrator authority includes the ability to
restore node data from a remote system to a local system?
A. storage
B. system
C. operator
D. client access
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The Backup Operators group allows users to back up and restore files regardless of whether they
have read or write access to the files. Since this group has a limited set of user rights, some functions
are not available to members of the Backup Operators group.

NO.4 What can be done so that a data center can maintain highly available restore and recovery
capabilities across data centers?
A. Use node replication.
B. Use active-data pools.
C. Put the storage pools on shared SAN volumes.
D. Use Disaster Recovery Manager to automate a server rebuild if needed.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The Disaster Recovery Manager (DRM)
The TSM(Tivoli StorageManager)Disaster Recovery Manager is a feature that is included
with TSM Extended Edition andit is the part of the TSM application that can be used to
assist with the management of off-sitedisaster recovery.
Reference:A Brief Introduction to IBM Tivoli StorageManager Disaster Recovery Manager

NO.5 What is compatible with client-side deduplication?
A. SSL
B. NDMP
C. encryption
D. LAN-free backup
Answer: B

• Number of questions: 63
• Time allowed in minutes: 90
• Required passing score: 66%
• Languages: English, Japanese

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Explanation:
When you configure client-side data deduplication, the following requirements must be met:
*The client and server must be at version 6.2.0 or later.
*(not D)Client-side deduplication cannot be used in combination with LAN-free backups.
*(not C)Files that are intended for deduplication must not be encrypted. Encrypted files
and files from encrypted file systems cannot be deduplicated.
Etc.

NO.6 What does the command query inclexcl show?
A. Details of which files are backed up.
B. The specific order in which files are backed up.
C. Which users have restore privileges for specific files.
D. The include/exclude statements in the order they will be processed.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two types of server tasks are shown in the Operations Center?
A. active
B. db reorgs
C. encrypted
D. completed
E. missed schedules
Answer: A,E

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Explanation:
A:TSM Servers The status indicator shows whether the Tivoli Storage Manager servers that are
managed by the Operations Center are available to provide data protection services to clients. E:TSM
Clients A client is considered to be at risk if a problem occurs during its most recent scheduled
backup, or during a backup that starts within a specified time interval. The term backup also includes
archive operations for TivoliStorage Manager for Enterprise Resource Planning clients. Use the
information that is shown in the TSM Clients section to check for failed or missed backups and to
determine whether backup schedules are running as expected.

NO.8 There is a requirement to provide hot backups for a physical machine running Microsoft
Exchange Server 2010. What is a prerequisite?
A. Update the VSSPOLICY in the dsm.opt file to specify a management class.
B. Install IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Mail on the same system as the Exchange server.
C. Update power shell cmdlets to include the IP address of the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server.
D. Stop the Exchange host controller service, start the incremental backup, and start the Exchange
server.
Answer: B

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C2150-198 Exam Questions, C2040-414 Bootcamp

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Exam Code: C2150-198
Exam Name: IBM Security Access Manager V7.0 Implementation
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Exam Code: C2040-414
Exam Name: IBM Sametime 9.0 Fundamentals
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NO.1 In which policy is the setting "Allow screen sharing" found?
A. Meeting
B. Sametime
C. Media Manager
D. Instant Messaging
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which components are parts of the IBM Sametime Media Manager?
A. SIP Proxy, Video Manager. Conference Manager
B. Video Manager, Video Multipoint Control Unit. MUX Server
C. SIP Proxy, Conference Manager. Sametime Advanced Server
D. TURN Server. SIP Edge Proxy Server, Sametime Gateway Server
Answer: A

C2040-414 Test information:

• Number of questions: 62
• Time allowed in minutes: 90
• Required passing score: 67%
• Languages: English, Japanese

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NO.3 In which policy can the "Automatically Save Chat Transcript" be found?
A. Meetings
B. Media Services
C. SI P-based calling
D. Instant Messaging
Answer: D

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NO.4 Where can the ports used by the IBM Sametime Meeting Server be found in the IBM
WebSphere Integrated Solutions Console?
A. Resources > URL > URLs
B. Environment > Virtual Hosts
C. Application servers > STMeetingServer > Ports
D. Environment > Update global Web Server plug-in configuration
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two features are included with Sametime 9 Mobile Chat Client?
A. Meeting support
B. Broadcast tool support
C. Multi-point video on phone
D. Point-to-point video on tablets
E. Push-notification support for Android
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 Who is authorized to write plug-ins for IBM Sametime?
A. anyone
B. IBM developers only
C. IBM and IBM Business Partner developers only
D. developers of companies who own Sametime licenses
Answer: B


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HP2-Z33 Exam Questions, HP0-S41 Training online

NO.1 A research company wants to deploy a high throughput 802.11n only wireless network. The
network administrator selects the "client dot11n-only" option. Which other configuration option
must the network administrator configure?
A. maximum MCS index
B. basic rate 6Mb/s
C. mandatory rates MCS0-MCS15
D. MCS15 data rate
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Configuring 802.11n Rates
Introduction to MCS Configuration of mandatory and supported 802.11n rates is achieved by
specifying the maximum Modulation and Coding Scheme (MCS) index. The MCS data rate table shows
relations between data rates, MCS indexes, and parameters that affect data rates. A sample MCS
data rate table in the 20 MHz mode is shown in Table 1-4. For the whole table, refer to IEEE P802.11n
D2.00. Table 1-4 MCS data rate table (20 MHz)

NO.2 In an HP BYOD solution, what does DHCP fingerprinting provide?
A. endpoint information
B. web browser type
C. SSID of the connection
D. user account information
Answer: A

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
A client can roam successfully between AP1 and AP2. However, the client is unable to roam between
AP2 and AP3. What could be the problem?
A. The client is not using RSN+802.1X authentication mode.
B. The AP2 and AP3 are not in the same mobility group.
C. The network is using IPv6.
D. The IACTP service has been disabled on AC1.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which components participate in the HP BYOD authentication process? (Select two.)
A. HTTP agent
B. Wireless Service Manager (WSM)
C. User Access Manager DHCP agent
D. User Access Manager
E. BYOD portal server
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 It is Monday morning, and no one can connect to the wireless network. The network
administrator suspects that the access controller's certificate may have expired and is no longer valid.
How can the administrator check if this is the problem?
A. On the access controller, navigate to Authenticate > Certificate Management, and click the CRL
tab. Then click Retrieve CRL
B. On the access controller, navigate to Authenticate > Certificate Management and click the Domain
tab. Then click Retrieve CRL
C. On the access controller, navigate to Authenticate > Certificate Management and click the Entity
tab. Then click Request Cert.
D. On the access controller, navigate to Authenticate > Certificate Management and click the
Certificate tab. Then click Request Cert.
Answer: A

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NO.6 When accessing the wireless network in 802.1X with EAP-TLS, what do the user endpoints
require?
A. username and password of the user's account
B. client certificate or root certificate
C. client certificate and root certificate
D. MS-CHAPV2 to be configured
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-Z33
Exam Name: HP Unified Wired-Wireless Networks and BYOD
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Exam Code: HP0-S41
Exam Name: Building HP Server Solution
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Exam ID	HP0-S41
Exam type	Proctored exam taken at dedicated testing center
Exam duration	1 hour 45 minutes
Exam length	60 questions
Passing score	70%
Delivery languages	English

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Exam Name: AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Associate
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NO.1 How can software determine the public and private IP addresses of the Amazon EC2 instance
that it is running on?
A. Query the appropriate Amazon CloudWatch metric.
B. Use ipconfig or ifconfig command.
C. Query the local instance userdata.
D. Query the local instance metadata.
Answer: D


AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Associate
The AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate exam is intended for individuals with experience designing distributed applications and systems on the AWS platform. Exam concepts you should understand for this exam include:
Designing and deploying scalable, highly available, and fault tolerant systems on AWS
Lift and shift of an existing on-premises application to AWS
Ingress and egress of data to and from AWS
Selecting the appropriate AWS service based on data, compute, database, or security requirements
Identifying appropriate use of AWS architectural best practices
Estimating AWS costs and identifying cost control mechanisms

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NO.2 Which of the following services are included at no additional cost with the use of the AWS
platform? Choose 2 answers
A. Simple Storage Service
B. Elastic Compute Cloud
C. Auto Scaling
D. Elastic Load Balancing
E. CloudFormation
F. Simple Workflow Service
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 What is the maximum number of S3 Buckets available per AWS account?
A. 100 per region
B. there is no limit
C. 100 per account
D. 500 per account
E. 100 per IAM user
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which features can be used to restrict access to data in S3? Choose 2 answers
A. Use S3 Virtual Hosting
B. Set an S3 Bucket policy.
C. Enable IAM Identity Federation.
D. Set an S3 ACL on the bucket or the object.
E. Create a CloudFront distribution for the bucket
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 What is one key difference between an Amazon EBS-backed and an instance-store backed
instance?
A. Virtual Private Cloud requires EBS backed instances
B. Amazon EBS-backed instances can be stopped and restarted
C. Auto scaling requires using Amazon EBS-backed instances.
D. Instance-store backed instances can be stopped and restarted.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What item operation allows the retrieval of multiple items from a DynamoDB table in a single
API call?
A. GetItem
B. BatchGetItem
C. GetMultipleItems
D. GetItemRange
Answer: B

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Zend-Technologies 200-550 the latest exam practice questions and answers

NO.1 What is the difference between "print" and "echo"?
A. There is no difference.
B. Print has a return value, echo does not
C. Echo has a return value, print does not
D. Print buffers the output, while echo does not
E. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the output of the following code?
echo '1' . (print '2') + 3;
A. 123
B. 213
C. 142
D. 214
E. Syntax error
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the output of the following code?
$first = "second";
$second = "first";
echo $$$first;
A. "first"
B. "second"
C. an empty string
D. an error
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the output of the following code?
echo "1" + 2 * "0x02";
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 20
E. 7
Answer: C

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6. What is the output of the following code?
$a = 'a'; $b = 'b';
echo isset($c) ? $a.$b.$c : ($c = 'c').'d';
A. abc
B. cd
C. 0d
Answer: B

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7. What super-global should be used to access information about uploaded files via a POST
request?
A. $_SERVER
B. $_ENV
C. $_POST
D. $_FILES
E. $_GET
Answer: D

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8. What is the output of the following code?
$a = 3;
switch ($a) { case 1: echo 'one'; break; case 2: echo 'two'; break; default: echo 'four'; break; case 3:
echo 'three'; break;
}
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: C

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9. What is the output of the following code?
echo "22" + "0.2", 23 . 1;
A. 220.2231
B. 22.2231
C. 22.2,231
D. 56.2
Answer: B

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10. Which of the following may be used in conjunction with CASE inside a SWITCH statement?
A. A scalar
B. An expression
C. A boolean
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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11. What is the result of the following bitwise operation in PHP?
1 ^ 2
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4
E. -1
Answer: B

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12. What is "instanceof" an example of?
A. a boolean
B. an operator
C. a function
D. a language construct
E. a class magic
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following are valid identifiers? (Choose 3)
A. function 4You() { }
B. function _4You() { }
C. function object() { }
D. $1 = "Hello";
E. $_1 = "Hello World";
Answer: B,C,E

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1z0-034 Real Exams, 1Z0-533 Practice Exam

NO.1 Which data dictionary view would you query to find the name of the default permanent
tablespace of the database?
A. DICTIONARY
B. DBA_TABLESPACES
C. DBA_DIRECTORIES
D. DBA_STORED_SETTINGS
E. DATABASE_PROPERTIES
F. DBA_TABLESPACE_GROUPS
Answer: E

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NO.2 You issued the following commands to configure settings in RMAN:
RMAN> CONFIGURE DEVICE TYPE sbt PARALLELISM 1;
RMAN> CONFIGURE DEFAULT DEVICE TYPE TO Sbt;
RMAN> CONFIGURE DATAFILE BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE sbt TO 2;
RMAN> CONFIGURE ARCHIVELOG BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE sbt TO 2;
RMAN> CONFIGURE DATAFILE BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE DISK TO 2;
Then you issued the following command to take the backup:
RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG;
Which statement is true about the execution of the above command?
A. The backup will terminate because the FORMAT clause was not configured for the channel
B. It backs up two copies of data files to tape and disk, and two copies of archived log file on tape
C. It backs up the data files and archived log files to disk, making two copies of each data file and
archived logfile
D. It backs up the data files and archived log files to tape, making two copies of each data file and
archived logfile
Answer: D

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NO.3 Identify two options that Oracle recommends while configuring the backup and recovery
environment for your recovery catalog. (Choose two.)
A. configuring control file autobackup to be ON
B. backing up data filed only and not the archived redo log files
C. running the recovery catalog database in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
D. setting the retention policy to a REDUNDANCY value greater than 1
E. backing up the recovery catalog to the same disk as that of the target database
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which two statements about Oracle Direct Network File System (NFS) are true? (Choose two.)
A. It bypasses the OS file system cache.
B. A separate NFS interface is required for use across Linux, UNIX, and Windows platforms.
C. It uses the operating system kernel NFS layer for user tasks and network communication modules.
D. File systems need not be mounted by the kernel NFS system when being served through Direct
NFS.
E. Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating system kernel NFS
driver.
Answer: A,E

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Explanation:
Direct NFS provides faster performance that what can be provided by the operating system's NFS
driver as Oracle bypasses the operating system and generates exactly the requests it needs (no user
configuration or tuning required). Data is cached just once in user space, which saves memory (no
second copy in kernel space). Performance is further improved by load balancing across multiple
network interfaces (if available).

NO.5 You are managing a 24*7 database. The backup strategy for the database is to perform
user-managedbackups.
Identify two prerequisites to perform the backups. (Choose two.)
A. The database must be opened in restricted mode.
B. The database must be configured to run in ARCHIVELOG mode.
C. The tablespaces are required to be in backup mode before taking the backup.
D. The tablespaces are required to be in read-only mode before taking the backup
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Given below is a list of scenarios:
1. A user terminates his session abnormally.
2) The connection between the server and the client application terminates because of a
network failure.
3) A schema is accidentally dropped.
4) The tablespace is accidentally dropped from the database.
5) The hard disk gets corrupted and the data files in the disk are lost.
6) The database instance abnormally shuts down because of power failure.
Which scenarios require DBA intervention to perform recovery?
A. 1, 3, and 6
B. 4, 5, and 6
C. 3, 4, and 5
D. 1, 2, and 6
Answer: C

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application jobs at day time. You want the resource plans to activate automatically so that the
resource allocation is optimum as desired by the activity.
How would you achieve this?
A. Implement job classes
B. Implement Scheduler windows
C. Implement the mapping rule for the consumer groups
D. Set the SWITCH_TIME resource plan directive for both the resource plans
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statements are true regarding system-partitioned tables? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Only a single partitioning key column can be specified.
B. All DML statements must use partition-extended syntax.
C. The same physical attributes must be specified for each partition.
D. Unique local indexes cannot be created on a system-partitioned table.
E. Traditional partition pruning and partitionwise joins are not supported on these tables.
Answer: D,E

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Upgrade Oracle9i/10g OCA OR OCP to Oracle Database 11g OCP
Exam Number: 1Z1-034 / 1Z0-034
Duration: 2.5-3.5 hours
Associated Certifications: Oracle Database 11g Administrator Certified Professional
Number of Questions: 150-220
Exam Product Version: Oracle Database 11g,
Passing Score: TBD% Beta exam score reports will be available approximately 11 weeks after the close of the Beta Exam. You will receive an email with instructions on how to access your beta exam results. 
Exam Price: US$ 50
Validated Against:
This exam has been validated against Oracle Database 11g.

format: Multiple Choice

This exam is currently in beta.


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NO.1 What is the role of Bonjour in the Messages application?
A. To discover other Messages users on the local network
B. To stream video between Messages users
C. To communicate with AIM chat accounts
D. To communicate with Google Talk accounts
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which OS X utility can you use to transfer files from a Windows computer to a new MacBook
Pro running OS X?
A. Disk Utility
B. Network Utility
C. Migration Assistant
D. Boot Camp Assistant
E. AirPort Utility
Answer: C

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NO.3 When a firmware password is set on a Mac, which of these becomes more difficult for
unauthorized users to do?
A. Accessing the Internet from the Mac
B. Pairing Bluetooth devices with the Mac
C. Starting up the Mac from the Recovery HD partition
D. Installing applications on the Mac
Answer: D

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NO.4 Two days ago you connected a new USB hard drive to your Mac. Which procedure will
configure Time Machine to back up your data to theUSB drive?
A. In System Preferences, click Time Machine, then click Select Disk, select the USB hard drive, and
click "Use for Backup."
B. Click the Time Machine icon in the Dock, select the new USB hard disk as the backup destination,
choose ZIP from the Backup Format list, and click Start.
C. Drag the USB hard disk icon from the desktop onto the Time Machine icon in the Dock.
D. Drag the USB hard disk icon from the desktop onto the Time Machine icon in the
/Applications/Utilities/ folder.
Answer: A

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NO.5 In addition to the address of the Active Directory Domain, which of these do you need to enter
to bind your Mac to your company's ActiveDirectory server?
A. Your email address
B. The Ethernet ID of your Mac
C. An Active Directory admin user name and password
D. The domain name associated with your Mac
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement describes a FileVault 2 usage requirement?
A. You can enable FileVault 2 only for admin user accounts.
B. You can turn off FileVault 2 by starting up the Mac in single-user mode and entering the Master
Password at the prompt.
C. If you lose the admin user password for a Mac that has FileVault turned on, you can retrieve its
user data by restarting the Mac inTarget Disk Mode.
D. You must authenticate as an admin user to turn on FileVault 2.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Where can Time Machine store its backup files?
A. DVD-R disc
B. Internal startup volume
C. iCIoud
D. External USB hard disk
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which messaging protocol does Messages in OS X support?
A. Jabber
B. IRC
C. SMS
D. MSNP
Answer: A

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NO.1 Select the commands that give statistics regarding OGG process and memory resource usage.
A. SEND...REPORT
B. SEND...STATS
C. SEND...CACHEMGR
D. INFO...SHOWSTATS
Answer: C

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Exam Number: 1Z1-067 / 1Z0-067
Duration: 2.5-3.5 hours
Associated Certifications: Oracle Database 12c Administrator Certified Professional
Number of Questions: 150-220
Exam Product Version: Oracle Database 12c,
Passing Score: TBD% Beta exam score reports will be available approximately 11 weeks after the close of the Beta Exam. You will receive an email with instructions on how to access your beta exam results. 
Exam Price: US$ 50
Validated Against:
Exam has been validated against Oracle Database 12.1.0.1.0.

NO.2 Which Replicat parameter is used when looking up table definitions in a file?
A. SPECIALRUN
B. DEFERAPPLYINTERVAL
C. SOURCEISFILE
D. SOURCEDEFS
Answer: D

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NO.3 When implementing GoldenGate on a 11gR2 Oracle database and after running the
GoldenGate Database profiling script, you discover that certain objects are compressed, what
should you do?
A. Contact Oracle support
B. Continue the implementation of OGG and exclude those objects from replication
C. Configure OGG with Classic Capture
D. Configure OGG with Integrated Capture
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which Manager Parameter sets will report current lag every hour and write a critical message
for any Extract/Replicate with a lag over 60 minutes?
A. LAGBEPOBTHOURS 1, LAGINFO 1 and LAGCRITICAL 60
B. LAGREPORTMINUTES 60, LAGINFOHOURS 1
C. LAGREPOBT 1, I.AGCRITICALHOURS 1
D. LAGREPOBTHOURS 1, LAGINFOMINUTES 30, LAGCR JTTCAI-M I
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Reference :
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NO.5 Select the statement that is supported by OGG DDL Replication.
A. ENCRYPT
B. ALTGLOBAL
C. CREATE ROLE
D. ALTDB
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which database platform does GoldenGate not natively support?
A. Sybase
B. FoxPro
C. DB2
D. Teradata
Answer: B

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NO.7 What GoldenGate process is responsible for capturing changes in the source database?
A. Manager
B. Replicate
C. Extract
D. Server Collector
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Reference:
http://download.oracle.com/docs/cd/E15881_01 /doc.104 /gg_wux_ref_v104.pdf

NO.8 What parameter provides options for compression and encryption?
A. RMTHOST
B. TARGET
C. TCPIP
D. TARGET DB
Answer: A

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Reference :
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Latest IBM C4040-252 of exam practice questions and answers

NO.1 A customer decided to install an IBM i LPAR on an E870, which hosts AIX and VIOS partitions.
The server does not contain a DVD Unit (#5771).
What is the least expensive option to install an IBM i operating system?
A. Install an IBM i partition using the existing NIM server.
B. Use the internal tape device to load IBM i.
C. Configure a vSCSI adapter and use the Virtual Media Repository.
D. Attach an external DVD drive via the USB port in front of the System Control Unit
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A virtual media repository may be used to substitute for a DVD device if using VIOS.
Reference:http://www.redbooks.ibm.com/redpapers/pdfs/redp5137.pdf(page 36)

NO.2 What Power Systems Virtual Switch mode can be used to prevent LPAR to LPAR network traffic
within the system?
A. VEB (Virtual Ethernet Bridging)
B. VET (Virtual Ethernet Trunking)
C. VEPA (Virtual Ethernet Port Aggregator)
D. VES (Virtual Ethernet Switching)
Answer: D

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NO.3 Compared to x86, what feature of POWER8 processor technology permits more efficient
processor core utilization to support highly threaded applications?
A. Decimal floating point unit
B. L4 caches
C. SMT8
D. CAPI
Answer: C

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Some of the best opportunities for improving application performance are in delivering scalable code
by having an application make effective use of multiple concurrent threads of execution. With the
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i, and Linux. A 4-core LPAR, with SMT8 mode (eight hardware threads per core), means that the OS is
running 32 logical CPUs.

NO.4 A managed service provider offering retail cloud services on E870 with DS8870 storage would
like to use storage copy services to replicate data between a primary and secondary data center
located 200 miles (322 km) apart.
Which product is required?
A. FlashCopy
B. Metro Mirror
C. Global Mirror
D. Snapshot
Answer: C

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Reference:http://pic.dhe.ibm.com/infocenter/flexsys/information/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.ib
m.acc.4939.doc%2Fsvc_mirrorsuptlongdistlinks_3he0ay.html

NO.5 What P0WER8 enhancement provides greater RAS compared to prior generations of Power
Systems?
A. First Failure Data Capture
B. Larger L3 memory cache modules
C. Redundant system clocks
D. Spare data lane on each fabric bus
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer has a tape drive directly connected to a 8Gb FC adapter to one LPAR which now
needs to be shared between four LPARs. Network and storage are being accessed through NPiV and
SEA.
In addition to assigning the adapter to the VIOS, what else needs to be done?
A. Reassign the tape to client LPARs as needed.
B. Assign the tape drive to the partitions.
C. Complete the NPIV connectivity and map the tape to client partitions.
D. Complete the vSCSI connectivity and map the tape to client partitions.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A new customer has a requirement to analyze the effects of activating two cores on an E870
and 32GB of memory for one month.
What is the most cost-effective Capacity on Demand (CoD) offering that would satisfy this
requirement?
A. On/Off
B. Elastic
C. Utility
D. Trial
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www-
01.ibm.com/common/ssi/cgibin/ssialias?infotype=an&subtype=ca&appname=gpateam&supplier=89
7&letternum=ENUS 114-160
Explanation:
f a Power E870 system node uses the IBM i operating system and the temporarily activated cores
were used for IBM i partitions, you must inform the sales team placing the billing feature order which
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Updated: 08-03,2015
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NO.1 Within a company, what does a typical user want from a mobile device7 (Select two.)
A. easy to centrally manage
B. sleek and thin design
C. global availability
D. latest technology
E. easy deployment
F. cheap purchasing price
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 What would you recommend to your financial trading customer who is looking for a powerful,
flexible Thin Client solution?
A. HP t410 AII-in-One
B. HP t820 Thin Client
C. HP Mobile Thin Client
D. HP Smart Zero Client
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The HP t820 benefits organizations in industries-such as financial trading, architecture, engineering,
and military or government agencies-that require high-performance computing to run specialty
programs.

NO.3 Which kinds of extremes do HP printers undergo during testing? (Select two.)
A. temperature/humidity
B. vibration
C. under water
D. dust and pollution
E. loud noise
F. dropped from 10 feet
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Where is the reseller's value in recommending an HP Printer or Scanner?
A. HP has shipped over 200 million printers and 300 million scanners.
B. Gartner recognizes HP as a leader in MFP, manageability, and security
C. HP invests in new compatible paper types for emerging markets.
D. HP only makes printers and helps to deflect selling scanners.
Answer: B

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NO.5 How has HP managed to ship more laser printers than any other competitor'?
A. because of the introduction of color printing in 2013
B. because HP sells the cheapest printers in the market
C. because HP addresses the customer's needs
D. because HP is the only company that offers an MFP printer
Answer: C

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NO.6 How should you prove that inkjet printers perform well?
A. Fiber Channel internal cabling
B. 10 Gigabit network connection
C. fast first page out and high color print speed up to 70ppm
D. single pass duplex printing
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which serviceability benefit does the HP 800 series offer?
A. a replacement device within two days
B. remote servicing support
C. EasyAccess door
D. a two-hour, onsite visit
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.infotech.at/fileadmin/infotech/Downloads/PPG_New_Products.pdf(sli de 22)

NO.8 How much pressure is the display enclosure on the HP ZBook mobile workstation designed to
withstand?
A. 45 kg/100 lbs
B. 91 kg/200 lbs
C. 136 kg/300 lbs
D. 181 kg/400 lbs
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The display enclosure is really tough - it can withstand 136 kilograms, or 300 pounds pressure
hpspps.pdf p.268

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