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Exam Code: C_HANAIMP151
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate -
SAP HANA (Edition 2015)
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Exam Code: C-TADM51-731
Exam Name: SAP Certified Technology Associate -
System Administration (Oracle DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.31
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NO.1 You have created SAP HANA information models from replicated SAP ECC
data.
How can you compare the data of the replicated tables with the
underlying ECC source data?
A. Use the SAP ERP Data Browser (transaction
SE16).
B. Use the Catalog node to open table contents.
C. Use transaction
IUUC_REPL_CONTENT.
D. Use the Data Provisioning view from the Quick
Launch.
Answer: A,B
C_HANAIMP151SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP HANA (Edition
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exam Solution: SAP HANA
exam Delivery Methods: Certification
exam Level:
Associate
Exam content: 80 questions
Sample Questions: PDF Link
Cut Score:
59%
exam Duration: 180 mins
exam Languages: English
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NO.2
Which of the following actions must you perform in an SAP HANA system to
transport content
to another SAP HANA system?
A. Generate and save an
export file to a shared directory.
B. Assign the content repository to a
transport request.
C. Mass copy the content repository into the other SAP
HANA system.
D. Assign the package to a delivery unit.
Answer:
A,D
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NO.3 You
need to find out which users logged on to the SAP HANA system over the course of
the last
week.
What would you check?
A. The Audit log
B. Entries in
M_CONNECTIONS
C. The nameserver_history.trc file
D. The
indexserver_alert.trc file
Answer: A
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NO.4 Which connection type is
required from the SAP ERP system to SAP HANA to enable COPA side
by side
scenario?
A. HTTP connection
B. JDBC
C. Secondary database
connection
D. Remote Function Call
Answer: C
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NO.5 Which of the following automatically aggregates data?
A.
Analytic view
B. Calculation view
C. Column table
D. Attribute
view
Answer: A,B
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NO.6 HANA Currency Conversion supported only via ___
A.
Analytic
B. Attribute
C. Calculation
D. Analytic /
Calculation
Answer: D
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NO.7 You have imported models from
the development system. What is the recommended way
toactivate dependent
models in SAP HANA?
A. Use the Activate with History function.
B. Use the
Where-Used List function.
C. Use the Cascade Activate function.
D.
Activate each view manually.
Answer: C
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NO.8 When you
activate an analytic view, a column view is created. In which schema is this
column
view stored?
A. _SYS_BIC
B. _SYS_BI
C. _SYS_REPO
D.
_SYS
Answer: A
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2015年9月10日星期四
1z0-061 Test Questions, 1z0-067 Training online
NO.1 Which two statements are true when row-archival management is
enabled?
A. Visibility of theORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is controlled by the row archival visibility session
parameter.
B. TheORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is updated manually or by a program that can reference activity
tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
C. The row archival visibility session parameter defaults to all rows.
D. TheORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is visible if it is referenced in the select list of a query.
E. TheORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is updated automatically by the database based on activity
tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
Answer: A,D
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NO.2 In which three scenarios is media recovery required?
A. when a tablespace is accidentally dropped from a database
B. when archived redo log files are lost
C. when data files are lost
D. when one of the online redo log members is corrupted
E. when all control files are lost
Answer: A,D,E
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Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/A87860_01/doc/server.817/a76993/recoscen.htm
NO.3 RMAN is connected to the target database prod1 and an auxiliary instance in nomount state.
Examine the command to create a duplicate database:
RMAN> DUPLICATE TARGET DATABASE TO dup1
FROM ACTIVE DATABASE
NOFILENAMECHECK
PASSWORD FILE
SPFILE;
Which two statements are true about the execution of the duplicate command?
A. All archive redo log files are automatically copied to the duplicate database.
B. The duplicate database has the same directory structure as the source database.
C. The duplicate database is created by using the backups created during the execution of
D. the duplicate command.
E. The password file and SPFILE for the duplicate database dup1 are created in their respective
default locations.
F. The duplicate database is created without using RMAN backups and prod: is allowed to remain
open during duplication.
Answer: A,F
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NO.4 You notice that the performance of your production 24/7 Oracle 12c database has significantly
degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want
to restart the database instance.
How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?
A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA for analysis.
C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest
Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring,
E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.
Answer: C
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Explanation:
* In most cases, ADDM output should be the first place that a DBA looks when notified of a
performance problem.
* Performance degradation of the database occurs when your database was performing optimally in
the past, such as 6 months ago, but has gradually degraded to a point where it becomes noticeable to
the users. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) Compare Periods report enables you to
compare database performance between two periods of time.
While an AWR report shows AWR data between two snapshots (or two points in time), the AWR
Compare Periods report shows the difference between two periods (or two AWR reports with a total
of four snapshots). Using the AWR Compare Periods report helps you to identify detailed
performance attributes and configuration settings that differ between two time periods.
Reference: Resolving Performance Degradation Over Time
NO.5 You issue the command:
SQL> ALTER DATABASE BACKUP CONTROLFILE TO TRACE;
Which statement is true about the command?
A. It creates a copy of the control file and stores it in the location specifiedin the diagnostic_dest
initialization parameter.
B. It creates a file that contains the SQL statement, which is required to re-create the control file.
C. It updates the alert log file with the location and contents of the control file.
D. It creates a binary backup of the control file.
Answer: A
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NO.6 Which three statements are true regarding the use of the Database Migration Assistant for
Unicode (DMU)?
A. A DBA can check specific tables with the DMU
B. The database to be migrated must be opened read-only.
C. The release of the database to be converted can be any release since 9.2.0.8.
D. The DMUcan report columns that are too long in the converted characterset
E. The DMUcan report columns that are not represented in the converted characterset
Answer: A,D,E
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Explanation:
A: In certain situations, you may want to exclude selected columns or tables from scanning or
conversion steps of the migration process.
D: Exceed column limit
The cell data will not fit into a column after conversion.
E: Need conversion
The cell data needs to be converted, because its binary representation in the target
character set is different than the representation in the current character set, but neither
length limit issues nor invalid representation issues have been found.
NO.7 Users report this error message when inserting rows into the orders table:
ERROR atline1:
ORA-01654f:unable to extend index USERS.ORDERS_IND by 8in tablespace INDEXES
You determine that the indexes tablespace is out of space and there is no free space on the
filesystem used by the Oracle database.
Which two must you do to fix this problem without affecting currently executing queries?
A. drop and re-create the index
B. coalesce the orders ind index
C. coalesce the indexes tablespace
D. perform an on line table rebuild using dbns_redefir.ition.
E. rebuild the index online moving it to another tablespace that has enough free space for the index
Answer: A,C
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NO.8 Automatic Undo Management is enabled for your database. You want a user to retrieve
metadata and historical data for a given transaction or for transactions in a given time interval.
Which three are prerequisites to fulfill this requirement?
A. Minimal supplemental logging must be enabled.
B. The database must be running in archivelog mode.
C. Flashback Data Archive must be created and the flashback archive administer system privilege
must be granted to the user.
D. The flashback any table privilege must be granted to the user.
E. The select any transaction privilege must be granted to the user.
F. Therecycle binparameter must be set to on.
Answer: C,D,E
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Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c: SQL Fundamentals
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A. Visibility of theORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is controlled by the row archival visibility session
parameter.
B. TheORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is updated manually or by a program that can reference activity
tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
C. The row archival visibility session parameter defaults to all rows.
D. TheORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is visible if it is referenced in the select list of a query.
E. TheORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is updated automatically by the database based on activity
tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
Answer: A,D
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NO.2 In which three scenarios is media recovery required?
A. when a tablespace is accidentally dropped from a database
B. when archived redo log files are lost
C. when data files are lost
D. when one of the online redo log members is corrupted
E. when all control files are lost
Answer: A,D,E
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Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/A87860_01/doc/server.817/a76993/recoscen.htm
NO.3 RMAN is connected to the target database prod1 and an auxiliary instance in nomount state.
Examine the command to create a duplicate database:
RMAN> DUPLICATE TARGET DATABASE TO dup1
FROM ACTIVE DATABASE
NOFILENAMECHECK
PASSWORD FILE
SPFILE;
Which two statements are true about the execution of the duplicate command?
A. All archive redo log files are automatically copied to the duplicate database.
B. The duplicate database has the same directory structure as the source database.
C. The duplicate database is created by using the backups created during the execution of
D. the duplicate command.
E. The password file and SPFILE for the duplicate database dup1 are created in their respective
default locations.
F. The duplicate database is created without using RMAN backups and prod: is allowed to remain
open during duplication.
Answer: A,F
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NO.4 You notice that the performance of your production 24/7 Oracle 12c database has significantly
degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want
to restart the database instance.
How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?
A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA for analysis.
C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest
Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring,
E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.
Answer: C
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Explanation:
* In most cases, ADDM output should be the first place that a DBA looks when notified of a
performance problem.
* Performance degradation of the database occurs when your database was performing optimally in
the past, such as 6 months ago, but has gradually degraded to a point where it becomes noticeable to
the users. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) Compare Periods report enables you to
compare database performance between two periods of time.
While an AWR report shows AWR data between two snapshots (or two points in time), the AWR
Compare Periods report shows the difference between two periods (or two AWR reports with a total
of four snapshots). Using the AWR Compare Periods report helps you to identify detailed
performance attributes and configuration settings that differ between two time periods.
Reference: Resolving Performance Degradation Over Time
NO.5 You issue the command:
SQL> ALTER DATABASE BACKUP CONTROLFILE TO TRACE;
Which statement is true about the command?
A. It creates a copy of the control file and stores it in the location specifiedin the diagnostic_dest
initialization parameter.
B. It creates a file that contains the SQL statement, which is required to re-create the control file.
C. It updates the alert log file with the location and contents of the control file.
D. It creates a binary backup of the control file.
Answer: A
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NO.6 Which three statements are true regarding the use of the Database Migration Assistant for
Unicode (DMU)?
A. A DBA can check specific tables with the DMU
B. The database to be migrated must be opened read-only.
C. The release of the database to be converted can be any release since 9.2.0.8.
D. The DMUcan report columns that are too long in the converted characterset
E. The DMUcan report columns that are not represented in the converted characterset
Answer: A,D,E
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Explanation:
A: In certain situations, you may want to exclude selected columns or tables from scanning or
conversion steps of the migration process.
D: Exceed column limit
The cell data will not fit into a column after conversion.
E: Need conversion
The cell data needs to be converted, because its binary representation in the target
character set is different than the representation in the current character set, but neither
length limit issues nor invalid representation issues have been found.
NO.7 Users report this error message when inserting rows into the orders table:
ERROR atline1:
ORA-01654f:unable to extend index USERS.ORDERS_IND by 8in tablespace INDEXES
You determine that the indexes tablespace is out of space and there is no free space on the
filesystem used by the Oracle database.
Which two must you do to fix this problem without affecting currently executing queries?
A. drop and re-create the index
B. coalesce the orders ind index
C. coalesce the indexes tablespace
D. perform an on line table rebuild using dbns_redefir.ition.
E. rebuild the index online moving it to another tablespace that has enough free space for the index
Answer: A,C
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NO.8 Automatic Undo Management is enabled for your database. You want a user to retrieve
metadata and historical data for a given transaction or for transactions in a given time interval.
Which three are prerequisites to fulfill this requirement?
A. Minimal supplemental logging must be enabled.
B. The database must be running in archivelog mode.
C. Flashback Data Archive must be created and the flashback archive administer system privilege
must be granted to the user.
D. The flashback any table privilege must be granted to the user.
E. The select any transaction privilege must be granted to the user.
F. Therecycle binparameter must be set to on.
Answer: C,D,E
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Exam Code: 1z0-061
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NO.1 As a member of the project team, you are asked to set up the system so
that user has to enter
an
order reason when processing a sales order. It should be possible to save the incomplete order,
but further processing should not be possible until the Order Reason field is filled.
How do you implement this requirement?
A. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field and mark it as mandatory.
B. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field and assign a status group in
which the fields General, Delivery, and Billing Document are selected.
C. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field, assign it to the sales
document type, and set the status to "released for further process steps".
D. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field and assign it to a sales
document type that has the "Incompletion Message" indicator set.
Answer: B
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NO.2 What Service Desk feature provides all the functions to analyze and monitor an entire SAP
solution centrally?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Implementation Roadmap
C. SAP Notes
D. SAP Solution Manager diagnostics
Answer: D
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NO.3 In which of the following master records can partial delivery agreements be stored? (Choose
two)
A. In the customer material info record
B. In the material master record
C. In the condition master record
D. In the customer master record
Answer: A,D
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NO.4 Which of the following statements regarding quantity contracts is correct?
A. Quantity contract items will show up in the delivery due list when ready for delivery.
B. Different requested delivery dates are maintained in the schedule lines of the quantity contract.
C. Quantity contracts contain details about the customer's requested delivery dates.
D. Quantity contracts are delivered using a contract release order.
Answer: D
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NO.5 Using rental contracts, which settings are mandatory for working with periodic billing?
(Choose
two)
A. Maintenance of a factory calendar that is assigned to the customer master
B. Assignment of a billing plan type to the item category of the rental contract item
C. Maintenance of a separate billing type that is assigned to the sales document type of the rental
contract
D. Assignment of the respective billing relevance (order-relevant billing – billing plan) to the item
category of the rental contract item
Answer: B,D
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NO.6 Based on which of the following dates is the availability check (ATP) carried out?
A. Requested delivery date
B. Replenishment lead date
C. Material availability date
D. Goods issue date
Answer: C
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NO.7 For what purposes can you use transaction variants? (Choose two)
A. To define values in a selection screen for a report
B. To add new external fields to the sales document
C. To hide fields in a sales order
D. To define default values for data fields
Answer: C,D
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NO.8 Which SAP NetWeaver component realizes cross-system application processes?
A. SAP Exchange Infrastructure (SAP XI) / SAP Process Integration (SAP PI)
B. SAP Enterprise Portal (SAP EP)
C. SAP Master Data Management (SAP MDM)
D. SAP Business Warehouse (SAP BW)
Answer: A
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Exam Code: C-TADM51-731
Exam Name: SAP Certified Technology Associate - System Administration (Oracle DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.31
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Exam Code: C_TSCM62_65
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an
order reason when processing a sales order. It should be possible to save the incomplete order,
but further processing should not be possible until the Order Reason field is filled.
How do you implement this requirement?
A. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field and mark it as mandatory.
B. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field and assign a status group in
which the fields General, Delivery, and Billing Document are selected.
C. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field, assign it to the sales
document type, and set the status to "released for further process steps".
D. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field and assign it to a sales
document type that has the "Incompletion Message" indicator set.
Answer: B
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NO.2 What Service Desk feature provides all the functions to analyze and monitor an entire SAP
solution centrally?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Implementation Roadmap
C. SAP Notes
D. SAP Solution Manager diagnostics
Answer: D
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NO.3 In which of the following master records can partial delivery agreements be stored? (Choose
two)
A. In the customer material info record
B. In the material master record
C. In the condition master record
D. In the customer master record
Answer: A,D
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NO.4 Which of the following statements regarding quantity contracts is correct?
A. Quantity contract items will show up in the delivery due list when ready for delivery.
B. Different requested delivery dates are maintained in the schedule lines of the quantity contract.
C. Quantity contracts contain details about the customer's requested delivery dates.
D. Quantity contracts are delivered using a contract release order.
Answer: D
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NO.5 Using rental contracts, which settings are mandatory for working with periodic billing?
(Choose
two)
A. Maintenance of a factory calendar that is assigned to the customer master
B. Assignment of a billing plan type to the item category of the rental contract item
C. Maintenance of a separate billing type that is assigned to the sales document type of the rental
contract
D. Assignment of the respective billing relevance (order-relevant billing – billing plan) to the item
category of the rental contract item
Answer: B,D
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NO.6 Based on which of the following dates is the availability check (ATP) carried out?
A. Requested delivery date
B. Replenishment lead date
C. Material availability date
D. Goods issue date
Answer: C
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NO.7 For what purposes can you use transaction variants? (Choose two)
A. To define values in a selection screen for a report
B. To add new external fields to the sales document
C. To hide fields in a sales order
D. To define default values for data fields
Answer: C,D
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NO.8 Which SAP NetWeaver component realizes cross-system application processes?
A. SAP Exchange Infrastructure (SAP XI) / SAP Process Integration (SAP PI)
B. SAP Enterprise Portal (SAP EP)
C. SAP Master Data Management (SAP MDM)
D. SAP Business Warehouse (SAP BW)
Answer: A
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NO.1 HOTSPOT
A web application that listens on port 80 has been created for Internet users to access your
company's SharePoint site.
The web application uses claims-based authentication.
Users report that they are prompted for credentials when they access the site in their browser.
You need to enable anonymous access.
On the Manage web applications page in Central Administration, which option should you select? (To
answer, select the appropriate menu item in the answer area.)
Answer:
NO.2 You receive an error when you deploy the app.
You need to resolve the error.
What should you do?
A. Create a deployment package and upload the app to the app catalog in SharePoint.
B. Enable side-loading of apps in the app manifest.
C. Deploy the app to https://contoso-my.sharepoint.com.
D. Enable side-loading of apps in the Visual Studio project properties.
Answer: A
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Explanation:
We should deploy the app to the Development site, that is https://contoso.sharepoint.com/tasks
(see Existing Site Configuration in scenario).
NO.3 A user deploys a sandbox solution. The user cannot activate the solution.
You need to ensure that the user can activate the solution.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Grant permission to the user to activate the solution.
B. Grant permission to the user to execute the solution.
C. Configure a local mode load-balancing scheme.
D. Stop the Microsoft User Code Host Service.
E. Configure a remote mode load-balancing scheme.
F. Start the Microsoft SharePoint Foundation Sandboxed Code Service.
Answer: A,F
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Explanation:
A: Need to activate the feature that provisions the files.
siteCollection.Features.Add([guid_of_your)feature])
F: To enable sandboxed solutions by using Central Administration - Verify that you have the following
administrative credentials: - On the home page of the Central Administration Web site, in the System
Settings
section, click Manage services on server. - On the Services on Server page, in the Server box, select
the server on which you want to enable sandboxed solutions. - In the Microsoft SharePoint
Foundation Sandboxed Code Service row, in the Action column, click Start.
NO.4 The Contoso SharePoint on-premise intranet portal stores content in 50 site collections.
Contoso must display all content tagged with a metadata term on the main page of the portal.
You need to display all documents with the metadata term without using any custom code.
Which technology should you use?
A. Content Query Web Part (CQWP)
B. Content Search Web Part (CSWP)
C. TaxonomySession
D. CamlQuery
Answer: B
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Explanation:
CSWP can be configured to "see" items anywhere in SharePoint.
Incorrect:
Not A: CQWP and related SPSiteDataQuery can only search within the current site
collection.
Not C: For TaxonomySession you would have to write code.
Not D: The CamlQuery class just specifies a query on a list.
Reference: Using the Content Search web part (and understanding SP2013 search)
NO.5 You plan to create a SharePoint Business Process Automation (BPA) project.
You need to process items in queues on a configurable schedule.
Which tool should you use?
A. Remote Event Receiver
B. Work Item Timer Job
C. Out-of-the-box workflow
D. SharePoint Designer workflow
Answer: B
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Explanation:
A Work Item Timer Job can be scheduled to run operations in SharePoint. A Work Item Timer Job is
essentially a queue where you add list items that need to be processed. When the Work Item Timer
Job runs, it pulls items from the queue and process the item. When complete, the item is removed
from the queue (if you want) so it is not processed again.
Reference: ALL ABOUT SHAREPOINT WORK ITEM TIMER JOBS Adventure Works uses a web design
firm to design the user interface for an upcoming toy sales website, www.toys.adventureworks.com.
The website is built by using a SharePoint publishing template.
NO.6 Adventure Works uses a SharePoint publishing site for an external website at
www.adventureworks.com. The user interface is implemented by using HTML5, CSS 3, and JavaScript.
You need to ensure that the site designers have an efficient way to create and modify the JavaScript
files.
What should you do?
A. Open the site in SharePoint Designer. From All Files, double-click the _cts folder and then select
the MasterPages folder. Create a folder. Modify the JavaScript files by using Microsoft Notepad.
B. Copy all the JavaScript files to a document library and modify them directly by using Microsoft
Notepad.
C. Open the site in SharePoint Designer. From Master Pages select the JavaScript files to modify
them.
D. Set up a mapped network drive in Design Manager. Open the mapped drive and create a folder.
Modify the JavaScript files by using Microsoft Notepad.
Answer: C
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Explanation:
Master Page - Use SharePoint Designer to add code to a master page when you want to code to be
available on every page in a site. You can add the JavaScript inside of <SCRIPT> tags or link to a file
that contains the JavaScript. Typically add your CSS just before the </HEAD> section and your
JavaScript just before the </BODY> tag.
Reference: Adding JavaScript and CSS to SharePoint A company develops a SharePoint app that
employees use to submit expense reports. Employees can approve their own expenses for purchases
less than $100. For expenses greater than $100, the app will authenticate both itself and the user
before approval is requested.
NO.7 A company uses SharePoint for internal collaboration. SharePoint is deployed on a server farm
with a single front-end server, a single application server, and a dedicated database server.
You review existing Web Parts that read from and write to SharePoint lists. You find the following
code in one of the utility classes and notice memory leaks in the method.
You need to ensure that there are no memory leaks in the method.
What should you do?
A. Add a finally statement and include site.Dispose ().
B. Add site.Dispose() to the catch statement.
C. Add a finally statement and include siteCollection.Dispose ();
D. Add siteCollection.Dispose() to the catch statement.
Answer: C
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Exam Code: 70-488
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions
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Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
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NO.1 HOTSPOT
A web application that listens on port 80 has been created for Internet users to access your
company's SharePoint site.
The web application uses claims-based authentication.
Users report that they are prompted for credentials when they access the site in their browser.
You need to enable anonymous access.
On the Manage web applications page in Central Administration, which option should you select? (To
answer, select the appropriate menu item in the answer area.)
Answer:
NO.2 You receive an error when you deploy the app.
You need to resolve the error.
What should you do?
A. Create a deployment package and upload the app to the app catalog in SharePoint.
B. Enable side-loading of apps in the app manifest.
C. Deploy the app to https://contoso-my.sharepoint.com.
D. Enable side-loading of apps in the Visual Studio project properties.
Answer: A
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Explanation:
We should deploy the app to the Development site, that is https://contoso.sharepoint.com/tasks
(see Existing Site Configuration in scenario).
NO.3 A user deploys a sandbox solution. The user cannot activate the solution.
You need to ensure that the user can activate the solution.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Grant permission to the user to activate the solution.
B. Grant permission to the user to execute the solution.
C. Configure a local mode load-balancing scheme.
D. Stop the Microsoft User Code Host Service.
E. Configure a remote mode load-balancing scheme.
F. Start the Microsoft SharePoint Foundation Sandboxed Code Service.
Answer: A,F
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Explanation:
A: Need to activate the feature that provisions the files.
siteCollection.Features.Add([guid_of_your)feature])
F: To enable sandboxed solutions by using Central Administration - Verify that you have the following
administrative credentials: - On the home page of the Central Administration Web site, in the System
Settings
section, click Manage services on server. - On the Services on Server page, in the Server box, select
the server on which you want to enable sandboxed solutions. - In the Microsoft SharePoint
Foundation Sandboxed Code Service row, in the Action column, click Start.
NO.4 The Contoso SharePoint on-premise intranet portal stores content in 50 site collections.
Contoso must display all content tagged with a metadata term on the main page of the portal.
You need to display all documents with the metadata term without using any custom code.
Which technology should you use?
A. Content Query Web Part (CQWP)
B. Content Search Web Part (CSWP)
C. TaxonomySession
D. CamlQuery
Answer: B
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Explanation:
CSWP can be configured to "see" items anywhere in SharePoint.
Incorrect:
Not A: CQWP and related SPSiteDataQuery can only search within the current site
collection.
Not C: For TaxonomySession you would have to write code.
Not D: The CamlQuery class just specifies a query on a list.
Reference: Using the Content Search web part (and understanding SP2013 search)
NO.5 You plan to create a SharePoint Business Process Automation (BPA) project.
You need to process items in queues on a configurable schedule.
Which tool should you use?
A. Remote Event Receiver
B. Work Item Timer Job
C. Out-of-the-box workflow
D. SharePoint Designer workflow
Answer: B
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Explanation:
A Work Item Timer Job can be scheduled to run operations in SharePoint. A Work Item Timer Job is
essentially a queue where you add list items that need to be processed. When the Work Item Timer
Job runs, it pulls items from the queue and process the item. When complete, the item is removed
from the queue (if you want) so it is not processed again.
Reference: ALL ABOUT SHAREPOINT WORK ITEM TIMER JOBS Adventure Works uses a web design
firm to design the user interface for an upcoming toy sales website, www.toys.adventureworks.com.
The website is built by using a SharePoint publishing template.
NO.6 Adventure Works uses a SharePoint publishing site for an external website at
www.adventureworks.com. The user interface is implemented by using HTML5, CSS 3, and JavaScript.
You need to ensure that the site designers have an efficient way to create and modify the JavaScript
files.
What should you do?
A. Open the site in SharePoint Designer. From All Files, double-click the _cts folder and then select
the MasterPages folder. Create a folder. Modify the JavaScript files by using Microsoft Notepad.
B. Copy all the JavaScript files to a document library and modify them directly by using Microsoft
Notepad.
C. Open the site in SharePoint Designer. From Master Pages select the JavaScript files to modify
them.
D. Set up a mapped network drive in Design Manager. Open the mapped drive and create a folder.
Modify the JavaScript files by using Microsoft Notepad.
Answer: C
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Explanation:
Master Page - Use SharePoint Designer to add code to a master page when you want to code to be
available on every page in a site. You can add the JavaScript inside of <SCRIPT> tags or link to a file
that contains the JavaScript. Typically add your CSS just before the </HEAD> section and your
JavaScript just before the </BODY> tag.
Reference: Adding JavaScript and CSS to SharePoint A company develops a SharePoint app that
employees use to submit expense reports. Employees can approve their own expenses for purchases
less than $100. For expenses greater than $100, the app will authenticate both itself and the user
before approval is requested.
NO.7 A company uses SharePoint for internal collaboration. SharePoint is deployed on a server farm
with a single front-end server, a single application server, and a dedicated database server.
You review existing Web Parts that read from and write to SharePoint lists. You find the following
code in one of the utility classes and notice memory leaks in the method.
You need to ensure that there are no memory leaks in the method.
What should you do?
A. Add a finally statement and include site.Dispose ().
B. Add site.Dispose() to the catch statement.
C. Add a finally statement and include siteCollection.Dispose ();
D. Add siteCollection.Dispose() to the catch statement.
Answer: C
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NO.1 You need to provide users with the ability to open a Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services
(SSRS) report from a form.
What should you use?
A. A data source
B. A form part
C. An output menu item
D. A display method
Answer: B
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You need to add a button that has delete logic on a Click event. Users must be prompted for input in
the form of Yes or No before executing the delete operation.
What are two possible communication tools you can use to achieve this goal? Each correct answer
presents a complete solution.
A. Warning Boxes
B. Print, pause
C. Dialog boxes
D. Warning Info log
E. Error Info log
Answer: B,C
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NO.3 You are developing queries to fetch data from the CustTable table. CustTable contains a
field named City. There is a non-unique cluster index named city Idx in the City field.
You need to fetch data from CustTable in ascending order based on City.
What are three possible SQL statements that achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.
A. Select CustTable order by city ASC;
B. Select CustTable index city;
C. Select CustTable index city Idx;
D. Select city From CustTable;
E. Select CustTable order by city;
Answer: A,D,E
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NO.4 Which statement accurately describes a model in Dynamic AX?
A. A model can be used to group other models.
B. A model can group elements at multiple layers.
C. A model can group elements only at a specific layer.
D. An element that exists only in one layer can be in multiple models in the same layer.
Answer: C
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NO.5 You need to identify which permission can be set only on a form that has date effective data.
Which permission should you identify?
A. Correct
B. Create
C. Delete
D. Read
E. Update
Answer: A
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NO.6 A developer writes code by using X++.
You need to identify whether the code violates best practices.
Which tool should you use?
A. The X++ code editor
B. The Code profiler
C. The X++ compiler
D. The Debugger
Answer: C
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NO.7 You need to write X++ code that is common to both the CustTable table and the Vend Table
table. The solution must minimize the duplication of code.
What should you do?
A. Modify CustTable to add all of the fields in Vend Table. Write X* + code that uses CustTable.
B. Create a view that includes the fields in both CustTable and Vend Table. Write X+ + code that uses
the view.
C. Create a table that extends from CustTable and Vend Table. Write X+ + code that uses the new
table.
D. Create a map that links CustTable and Vend Table. Write X++ code that uses the map.
Answer: D
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NO.8 You need to set the code permission of an action menu item.
Which property should you use?
A. Linked Permission Object
B. Configuration Key
C. Needed Access Level
D. Web Secure Transaction
Answer: A
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Exam Code: MB5-705
Exam Name: Managing Microsoft Dynamics Implementations
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Managing Microsoft Dynamics Implementations
- Published: September 21, 2013
- Languages: English, French, German, Italian, Japanese, Russian, Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil), Chinese (Simplified)
- Audiences: IT professionals
- Technology: Microsoft Dynamics Sure Step
- Credit toward certification: MCP, Microsoft Dynamics Certified Technology Specialist
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R3 CU8 Development Introduction
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NO.1 You need to provide users with the ability to open a Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services
(SSRS) report from a form.
What should you use?
A. A data source
B. A form part
C. An output menu item
D. A display method
Answer: B
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NO.2 You are developing a solution that will delete some records from a specific table.
You need to add a button that has delete logic on a Click event. Users must be prompted for input in
the form of Yes or No before executing the delete operation.
What are two possible communication tools you can use to achieve this goal? Each correct answer
presents a complete solution.
A. Warning Boxes
B. Print, pause
C. Dialog boxes
D. Warning Info log
E. Error Info log
Answer: B,C
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NO.3 You are developing queries to fetch data from the CustTable table. CustTable contains a
field named City. There is a non-unique cluster index named city Idx in the City field.
You need to fetch data from CustTable in ascending order based on City.
What are three possible SQL statements that achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.
A. Select CustTable order by city ASC;
B. Select CustTable index city;
C. Select CustTable index city Idx;
D. Select city From CustTable;
E. Select CustTable order by city;
Answer: A,D,E
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NO.4 Which statement accurately describes a model in Dynamic AX?
A. A model can be used to group other models.
B. A model can group elements at multiple layers.
C. A model can group elements only at a specific layer.
D. An element that exists only in one layer can be in multiple models in the same layer.
Answer: C
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NO.5 You need to identify which permission can be set only on a form that has date effective data.
Which permission should you identify?
A. Correct
B. Create
C. Delete
D. Read
E. Update
Answer: A
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NO.6 A developer writes code by using X++.
You need to identify whether the code violates best practices.
Which tool should you use?
A. The X++ code editor
B. The Code profiler
C. The X++ compiler
D. The Debugger
Answer: C
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NO.7 You need to write X++ code that is common to both the CustTable table and the Vend Table
table. The solution must minimize the duplication of code.
What should you do?
A. Modify CustTable to add all of the fields in Vend Table. Write X* + code that uses CustTable.
B. Create a view that includes the fields in both CustTable and Vend Table. Write X+ + code that uses
the view.
C. Create a table that extends from CustTable and Vend Table. Write X+ + code that uses the new
table.
D. Create a map that links CustTable and Vend Table. Write X++ code that uses the map.
Answer: D
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NO.8 You need to set the code permission of an action menu item.
Which property should you use?
A. Linked Permission Object
B. Configuration Key
C. Needed Access Level
D. Web Secure Transaction
Answer: A
MB5-705 Real Questions : http://exam.it2blog.com/2015/06/19/microsoft-certification-mb5-705-exam-pdf/
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